Name of the Candidate: Roll Number: Enrollment Number IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS (Kindly read these instructions carefully before attempting this question paper) This Booklet contains 100 questions and each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking. Duration of this exam is 3 hours only. Candidates are required to submit the question paper, answer sheet and their admit card after the examination. Only books and notes are allowed for this examination. Mobile phones, laptop, tabs and/or any other electronic devices are strictly prohibited in the examination hall. 0n possession of any electronic device inside the examination hall, the candidate will be disqualified from the examination. Candidate shall not be allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the-conclusion'of the examination. Do not forget to submit the question paper and the answer sheet back to the invigilator. Failing to do so would lead to disqualification. 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English Set-A AIBE-VII Rashtriya Swasthya BimaYojna is mainly meant to serve the needs of (A) Organised workers (B) Unorganised workers (C) Unorganized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members (D) Organized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members Equal pay for equal work for both men and I women is proclaimed under of the Constitution of India. (A) Art.39(a) (B) Art.39(d) (C) Art.39(b) (D) Art.39(c) . Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year (A) 1992 (B) 1982 (C) 2009 (D) 2010 was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to go slow .. (A) Ba?k of India v. T.S.Kelawala and" others Randht'rsingli v. Union oflndia (C) Kamam' metals and alloys Ltd. v. Their workmen (D) War/(men v. Reptakos Brett and C0.Ltd.l 5. Under the Industrial disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute ldifference arising out of such termination shall be deemed to be?: (A) industrial dispute (B) individual dispute (C) both individual and industrial dispute (D) none ofthese. 6. Gloucstershire grammar School Case is a leading case to explain the (A) Volenti non ?t injuria (B) Injuria non fit volenti (C) Damnum sine injuria (D) Injuria sine damnum 7. Right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose -off property is abolished by (A) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 (B) 43 rd Amendment Act, 1976 (C) 50th Amendment Act, 1950 (D) I st Amendment Act, 1951 8. Which one of the following is covered under the de?nition of State (A) The Indian Statistical Institute (B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (C) Sainik School Society (D) NCERT 9. National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development is a major environmental policy in India and it was passed in the year BCI English Set-A (A) 1988 (A) M.C. Mehta v. Kama] Nath (B) 1982 I, I (B) Calcutta Tanneries Case (C) 1992 (C) M.C. Mehta V. UOI (D) 1990 (D) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu 10. of the Environmental Protection i Act, 1986, de?nes ?Environment? 13. India became a party to the International Convention on Biological Diversity in (A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 3(a) (A) 1992 (C) Section 1(a) (B) 1995 (D) Section 11(a) 1994 (D) 2000 1. Polluter Pays Principle means (A) polluter should bear the cost of pollution 14- 3 railway company is in 0f as the polluter is reSponsible for 1 goods as a consignee. It does not claim any pollution interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, (B) polluter should not necessarily bear the demurrage and freight but rival claims have cost of pollution as the polluter is may been made by and adversely to not be responsible for pollution each Other can institute (C) polluter may bear the cost of pollution (A) An application to decide the same as the polluter may be responSIble for (B) An interpleader suit pollution (C) Friendly suit (D) none of the above (D) None of the above 12. ?Pollution is a civil wrong. By its very 15.As per the provisions of the Criminal community as a whole. A person, therefore, in 593(1) (C) refers to who is guilty of causing pollution, has to pay damages (compensation) for restoration i nature, it is a tort committed against the procedure Code, the word ?inspection? used (A) Things or documents of the environment. He has also to pay (B) Documents only damages to those who have suffered loss on Locality and place account of the act of the offender. Further, (D) None ofthe above the offender can also be held liable to pay exemplary damages 50 that it may Wt 33 a 16. Statement recorded during investigation deterrent for others not to cause pollution in under 8.161 of can be used during any manner. However, the court cannot trial for impose any pollution ?ne in absence of any trial and ?nding of guilty under the relevant statutory provisions.? This observation was made in (A) Corroborating the witness (B) Contradicting the witness (C) Both A and (D) Neither A nor 17. ?If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts .. established indicate that such minor offence has been committed.? It was so upheld in which case (A) Sangarabonia Srcenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh (B) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta (C) Shamsher Singh v.State of Punjab (D) Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu 18. ?Ex dolo malo oritur actio? is (A) An action arose only when a right infringes - ., . (B) An action could not prevent a legal right (C) No action on an immoral act (D) None of the above 19. The Jural correlative of immunity is (A) Power (B) Disability (C) No claim (D) Claim 20. Who de?nes ?eternal law as, the divine order or will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach ofit.? (A) Ambrose (B) Augustine (C) Gregory (D) All the above English Set-A 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. ?Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one.? Who stated so? (A) Thomas Paine (B) Gregory Peck (C) Jefferson (D) Dicey The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of tribunals as instruments of quasi-judicial administrative adjudication (A) Art.39(a) and 39(b) (B) Art.323-A and 323-B (C) Art.368 (D) Art.202A and 202B Nemojudexin causasua meaning No man shall be a judge in his own cause was first stated by in Dr. Ban/1am is Case (A) Lord Grey (B) Lord Heward (C) Lord Coke (D) Lord Moulton General power of the Bar Council of India to make rules is envisaged under which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 (A) 3.48 (B) S. 49 (C) 8.112 (D) S.IVA Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to (A) Justice Abbot Parry (B) Justice Heward (C) Justice Bhagawathy (D) Justice Grey 26. Which Section under the Advocates Act,l96l Speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India (Advocates Act,l96l speaks about constitution of Legal Aid Committees (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 9A (0) 10A 28. 8.89 of the Civil Procedure Code was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code Amendment Act of which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanisms. (A) 1989 (B) 1999 (C) 1988 (D) 2009 29. In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside India, unless any or all provisions have been excluded . by agreement between the parties. (A) Bharia International v. Bulk Trading SA (8) United India Ins. Co. v. Associated Transport Corpn. (C) Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd. English Set-A (D) Ajmera Brothers v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain 30. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under S. of the Legal Services Authority Act of 1987 (A) 2213 (3) 22A (C) 22(1) 22 Evidences to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts iscalled as (A) Patent ambiguity (B) Latent ambiguity (C) Both ofthem (D) None of the above 32. Original document is the best evidence Exception to this rule is contained in (A) Indian Evidence Act (B) Criminal Procedure Code (C) Bankers Book Evidence Act (D) None ofthese 33. Doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the bene?t of an instrument must (A) Not bear the burden (B) Burden is not the subject of election (C) Burden is the subject of election (D) Bear the burden 34. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is from the date on which it becomes due. (A) lyear (B) 5 years 4 English Set-A (C) 9 years (C) Collective recognition (D) 15 years (D) De-facto recognition 35. Identify the correct order in which the 39. State is and becomes and international following law making treaties are concluded person through recognition only and . exclusively.? Who stated this? 1. The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (A) L. Oppenheim (B) Hobbes 2. The General Agreement on Tar1ffs and (C) Fenwick Trade (D) Starke 3.The Declarat10n ofParis 40. The United Nations Commission on Select the correct answer from the codes International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) given below 1 adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in (A) 1,3,2 (A) 1997 (8) 3,2,1 (B) 1993 (C) 2,1,3 (C) I996 . (D) 1,2,3 (D) 2013 36_ Which one of the following doctrine 41. Section 3 of Information Technology i requires that the parties to a treaty are bound (?12000 Wh'Ch ??95 originally t0 Observe its terms in good faith? Signature? was renamed as in ITAA 2008 (A) The Drago doctrine (3) Right of asylum (A) ?Digital Signature and Electronic (C) Doctrine of equality Signature? (D) Pacta Sunt Servanda (B) ?Digital Signature and Signature? -. - (C) ?Digital and Electronic Signature 37. General Assembly adopted the de?nition of (D) None ofthe above word Aggression through 42. Which among the following are the digital (A) Resolution 33 14 XXIX 31974 signature certifying authorities in India? (B) Resolution 3312 ,1973 (C) Resolution2213, 1982 (A) Safescript (D) None ofthe above (Bl NCERT (C) MTL 38. The admission ofa new political entity into (D) All the above the United Nations can be termed as 43. Section 43 of the Information Technology (A) r600gnition Act deals with (B) Conditional recognition 5? English Set-A 44. 45. 46. 47. (A) Criminal liability (B) Civil liability (C) Both the above (D) None of the above ?Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages compensation to the person so affected.? Which section of the Technology Information Amendment Act, 2008 envisages so (A) 43 (B) 43A (C) 438 (D) 43C obtained a sum of from by putting Din fear of death. Here commits (A) Extortion (B) Cheating (C) Mischief (D) Robbery What is the period of limitation to ?le a suit for compensation for false imprisonment? (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 12 years (D) lyear As per 8.19 of the Limitation Act,1963 if any payment is made on account of a debt, before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or by his agent duly authorized in that behalf a by way of 48. 49. fresh period of limitation starts running from the (A) Time when suit was ?led (B) When the payment was made (C) When the creditor demands (D) None of the above Under the Companies Act, 2013, any company having a net worth of rupees 500 crore or more or a turnover of rupees 1,000 crore or more or a net pro?t of rupees 5 crore or more should mandatorily spend of their net pro?ts per ?scal on Corporate Social Responsibility activities (The Guidelines constitute one of the most comprehensive CSR tools available to companies. (A) OECD (B) OACF (C) OECG (D) ASEAN 50. Conditions of Hindu Marriage have been 51. laid down under of Hindu Marriage Act (A) Sec.9 (B) Sec. 10 (C) Sec.5 (D) Sec 13 The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, 52. 53. 54. 55. English Set-A (A) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with daughter (B) Allows sons of the deceased equal rights with widows (C) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with wife (D) Allows daughters of the deceased equal 7 . rights with sons The Fuller /Hart Debate could be summarized as a debate between which two jurisprudential approaches/positions (A) Positivism and utilitarianism (B) Natural Law and Positivism (C) Positivism and Liberalism (D) Marxism and liberal feminism In bailment if the goods are lent free of cost to the bailee for his use it is known as bailment by (A) Deposition (B) Pledge (C) Commodation (D) None ofthe above Where the proposal and acceptance is through letters, the contract is made at the place where (A) The acceptance is received (B) The letter of acceptance is posted (C) Both the above answers (D) None of the above The surety stands discharged by (A) Death (B) Revocation (C) Variance in the terms of the contract without his consent (D) None of the above 56. All contracts which are unlawful and void are known as (A) Illegal contracts (B) Nugatory contracts (C) Voidable contracts (D) None of the above 57. S. of the Negotiable instruments Act deals with ?noting58. Cancellation of crossing is also called (A) Marking (8) Opening of crossing (C) Cancellation (D) None of the above 59. Negotiable claim issued by a bank in return for a term deposit is called (A) Share certi?cate (B) Certi?cate of incorporation (C) Certi?cate of deposit (D) Term deposit 60. Wager relate with (A) Present event (B) Past event (C) Future event (D) Any of the above English Set-A 61. In the judgment of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by to prepare a case management formula. (A) Justice.Bhagwathi (B) Justice Muralidhar (C) Justice .Raveendran (D) Justice .Jagannandha Rao 62. The 2013 Companies Act has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to (A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 150 63. The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the 2013 Act and would be subject to noti?cation by the (A) NFRA (B) NRFA (C) NARF (D) SEBI 64. Quifacit per aliumfacit per 56, means (A) act of an agent is the act of principal (B) act of an agent is not an act of principal (C) principal and agent are liable jointly (D) agent must not act in contravention of the act of principal 65. The concept of ?privity of contract? was rejected in (A) Winterbottom v. Wright (B) Donoghue v. Stevenson (C) Longmeid V. Holiday (D) Heaven v. Pender 66. is observed as the World Consumer Rights Day. (A) 15th of March (B) 16th of March (C) 12th of March (D) 11th ofMarch 67. Accountability of medical professional and the need for qualitative change in the attitude of the medical service provided by the hospitals was emphasized by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases (A) Bhatia International 12. Bulk Trading S.A (B) Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha and Ors (C) Manekha Gandhi v. Union of India (D) LucknowDeveiopment MK. Gupta Authority v. 68. Renewal of driving licenses is envisaged under S.?of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (69. 8.82 IPC is an illustration for (A) Presumption of fact (B) Presumption of law (C) Presumption of fact and presumption of law (D) None of the above. 70. Meaning Of Nemo praesumantur mentiri moriturus BCI English Set-A (A) A dying man can never speak truth 75. A law which violates fundamental rights is (B) A dying man can never speak falsehood not nullity or void-ab-initio but becomes (C) A dying man can speak truth only unenforceable, this doctrine is called (D) A dying man may not speak falsehood as 71. If a court lower to the Sessions Court tries a (A) Doctrine of severability murder case that court is called as (B) Doctrine of 3 points (C) Tornado doctrine (A) am sub udice (D) Doctrine of eclipse (B) Coram nonjudz'ce (C) Coram non subjudice 76. Equality of opportunity admits (D) Comm judice discrimination with reasons, It was observed by apex court in 72. SFIO stands for (A) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas . (B) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India (A) Serious Fraud Investigation Of?ce (C) AIR India v. Nargesh Mirza (B) Serious Force Institution Of?ce (D) All the above (C) Serious Form Investigation Of?ce (D) Serious File Investigation Of?ce 77. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behavior from habitual offenders for a period not more 73. Which provision of the Companies Act,2013 discusses about the issue of bonus shares out of its free reserves or the than securities premium account or the capital redemption reserve account, subject to the (A) 6 months compliance with certain conditions such as (B) 1 year authorization by the articles, approval in (C) 2years the general meeting (D) 3 years (A) 8.36 78. 8.167 of the Criminal Procedure Code (B) 8.43 provides that the nature of custody can be (C) 8.63 altered from judicial custody to police (D) 8.33 -. - custody and vice-versa this alteration can be done during the period of ?rst 74. The question whether the Fundamental Rights can be amended under Art.368 came (A) 15 days for consideration ?rst time in (B) 16 days . . (C) 14 days (A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (D) 12 days (B) Keshavanandtharati v. Union of India (C) GolakNath v. State of Punjab 79. Under which provision of the Code of (D) None of the above Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for a 9 English Set?A police of?cer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non -bailable (B) s.105 (C) 8.50 @3510 80. is inserted in to the Criminal' Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions (A) Nandim'Satpathy v. PL Dhani (B) Sum'! Batra v. Del/1i Administration (C) Prem Shankar Shit/{la v. Delhi Administration (D) D.K.Basu v. State of West Bengal 81. Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a virtue of S. the aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of head of and faculty of Medical College clinical (B) 328 1A (C) 328(2) 82. What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts? (A) Speci?c performance and injunction (B) Speci?c performance and damages (C) Speci?c performance only (D) All the above However by_ . 83. resides at Delhi, and at Agra. borrows from A at Benares and passes a promissory note to A payable at Benares.B fails to repay the loan. A may sue at (A) Benares or Agra (B) Benares only (C) Agra only (D) Benares, Agra and Delhi. 84. The general principle of waiver that provides that failure to raise objection in the court of the ?rst instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent stage and the judgment would not be vitiated on the ground of absence, of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil procedure Code (A) 8.15 (B) 8.16 (C) 8.51 (D) 8.21 85.Act of court can do no wrong to any person. Which concept relates to this ideology (A) Precept (B) Caveat (C) Restitution (D) Injunction 86. Rabindra Kumar Pal@ Dara Singh v.Republic of India a famous case coming under 8.30 of Evidence Act is also well known as (D) 346 English Set-A (A) Graham Stains Murder case (B) Graham Bells Murder case (C) Graham Street?s Murder case (D) Graham Stoits Murder case 87. Statement by a person who is dead is a relevant fact under of the Indian Evidence Act (A) s.32(3) (B) s.32(4) (C) 332(5) (D) 832(6) 88.A Charge Sheet ?led under 8.173 of is an example of (A) Public document (B) Private document (C) Patent document (D) Latent document 89. Procedure of investigation of criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code is contained in Chapter (90. Frost v.Km'ght is a leading case on (A) 3.32 (B) 5.33 (C) 8.34 (D) 3.35 91. Which among the following is a law based on equity? 93. 94. 95. (A) Indian Contract Act,1872 (B) Indian Penal Code, 1 863 (C) Indian Partnership Act,1932 (D) Speci?c Relief Act,l963 . Which section of the Speci?c Relief Act describes temporary Injunction (The maintenance amount which can be transferred (A) Future maintenance - (B) Right to future maintenance (C) Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date (D) None of the above The maximum period during which property can be tied up is (A) Only 15 years (B) One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and the minority of an unborn person (C) During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person (D) None of the above. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or in?rmity to any person is said to have in?icted on the victim (A) Grievous hurt (B) Hurt (C) Assault (D) None of the above 97. 98. 99. BCI English Set-A 96. Personation at Election is an offence under S. ofthe Indian Penal Code (A) 124A (B) 121 A (C) 1533 (D) 171D Raman having found a key of Raju?s house which Raju had lost, commits house trespass by entering Raju?s house after opening the door with that key. Raman has committed the offence of (A) House trespass (B) Criminal trespass (C) House breaking (D) None ofthese de?ned crime as ?a violation of public rights and duties due to the whole community considered as community. (A) Blackstone (B) Justice Bhagwati (C) V.R.Krishnalyer (D) Lord Heward Who among the following is not a ?public servant"? (A) Liquidator (B) A Civil Judge (C) Secretary of a Co-operative Society (D) None of these 100. The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yoiana (Universal Rural Employment Programme) was launched in 2001 and was implemented through (A) Labour offices 12 (B) Government (C) Panchayati Raj Institutions (D) All the above AIBE SET151% A l4. lL.r .r.i.l A t901234567890123456789m *7888888888899999999991 a A A012345678901234 6 A A 0123 6 a1_23?4557891111mw1nmwm 15? mm r? La. .615