AIBE so Set-A- English SLHD. 9213?.3 Name of the Candidate Signature of Inyigiiator Enrollment number . Eignature of Candidate Important Instructions read these Instructions carefully before attempting this question paperl I Candidates should get this Question booklEt signed by the inyigilator and fill the reduired details on the top of this page. I This Booklet contains 100 questions and each question carries 1 marks. - There Is no negative marking. I Duratlon of this exam is 3 hours only. I Only hooks and notes are allowed for this examination. I Mobile phones, labtop, tabs andror any other electronics devices are strictly prohibited to the examinations hali. I On possession of any electronic device inside the Examination hall, the candidate will be disoualli?led from the examination. I Candidates shall not be allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the conclusion of the examination. I Candidates should not remove any pageslS} from the booklet and any pageiSJFound missing from hisfher booklet W?luid lead to disiquaiification. I Use only bluefblaclt ball pen to ?ll the DMR answer sheet. I DMR ?lled with pencil or ink pen would be disquali?ed. I Use of whitenen?erasorfhlade or ?uid is strictly prohibited. It will lead to disquall'flcatlon. I Do not matte any stray merits or tear the [thin answer sheet. It will lead to disquali?cation. - Write your roll number carefully and darken the correct corresponding oyals. In case wrong ovals are darkened your answer sheet will not be evaluated. In Candidate must follow the instructions strictly as mentioned on the answer sheet. DD NUT OPEN THE UNTILL TD. DD '50. see-Engla? State practice lor the formation of d} Cannot authorize his relatnre who is customary rule includes neither his of?cer nor a legal 1- State actions practitioner to appear on his behatl 2. State claims a} ortly 1 5. in the light at the Criminal Law Amendment b] only 2 Act. 21313. which of the following statement a} both 1 and 2 is rare correct o} neither 1 nor 2 a} The word ?rape? in section 3?5 of lndian Penal Code. test} has been replaced 2. The Controller of Certifying Authorities in with sexual assault lndla must maintain a database at the hi Flaps- ls new a gender neutral offence disclosure records of c] The amendment has hired the age for t. Certilying Authenl-y oonsensuai sex as 15 years 2. Cross Certifying Authority di All the above 3. Foreign Certifying Authority a] 1 and 2 B. The offense of stalking upon second or b] 2 and 3 subsequent conviction is c] 3 and 1 a} Non cognrzable and Bailable 11] 1. 2 and 3 hi Cognizable and Bailable c} Cognizable and Hon-bailable 3. Under section 3? ol the IT Act. sees. the d} Non cognizable and Non-hailable certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certi?cate i1 In kidnapping. the censent o1 minor is 1. The subscriber is found guilty of a} wholly Immaterial malpractice bi partly immaterial 2. The subscriber is involved in cyber ct wholly material terron?sm d1 partly material 3. The subscriber requests tor the same 4. In public interest 3. Under the provisiens cf the Trade Unions a) 1 and 2 Act. 1926. any person who has attained the member of a c} 3 and =1 registered Trade Union subject to any rules d} 4 and 1 of the Trade Union to the contrary. a] 14 years 4- In the cases before Cyher Appellate hi 15 years Tribunal. the appetlant c) 18 years at Cannot appear in person without a legal 21 years practitioner b] Cannot authorize a legal practitioner to 9. Spuneus goods under the previerons of the appear on his behalf Consumer Protection Act. 1985 imply c} Cannot authorize his e?icer to appear a} Bush gonds and services which are o1 on his behalf poor quality. 1 Set-A- English arsE-iit ID. 11. 12. 13. 14. h} Such goods and services which are ciaimed to be genuine but they are not so oi Such goods and services which might be stolen in nature d) Such goods and services which are not usable in nature 1Ii'iiho is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?? a} Owner of the vehicle ti} State Govemment c] Driver dj insurance CompanyI lnclian Evidence Act applies to a] Proceedian beforetnounais hi Proceedian hetero the arbitrator ci Judicial proceedings In court d} All of the above Fact in issue means a} Fact, existence or non existence of which is admitted by the parties ti} Fact. existence or non existence of which is disputed by the parties cl Fact, existence or non existence at which is not disputed by the parties dj All the above in a callable otience hall is granted as a matter of right a} Etv the police officer Li]: Ev the court c] Both by the police officer and the court d} either [all or {ti} The conciliation proceedings a] can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings. ti] can he used as evidence only in Arbitral proceedings. c] Can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator. 15. 16- ii". 13. ?19. d} Cannot be used as evidence in anv judicial or arbitiat proceedings- The Serious Fraud Investigation Office a} Takes up cases suo motto oi Takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concerned ci Takes up cases for investigations referred to it by Central Government di All of the above Directive Principles are a} justifiable as fundamental rights h} justi?able but not as fundamental rights ci decorative portions of indian Constitution d} not justifiable. vet fundamental in the governance of the Who has the power to dissolve the LoI-t Sacha a} President bi Prime Minister c} Speaker of Sacha d] Council of Ministers An amendment of the Constitution can he initiated lav introduction of Bill for such purpose in a} Council of States a} House of People c) either in council of States or House of people d} noneotthe above Which oi the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air [Prevention and Control o! Pollution Act. 1931.? a] To carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of 2 2D. 21. 22. 23. potlution and prevention. abatement of pollution. b] To improve the quality of air ct Both A and d) neither A nor 8 control or The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by at Indian Environment [Protection] Act. 1986 bi The Water [Prevention and Control oi Poltution?i Act. rare at Indian Fisheries Act. tee? d} The National Green Tribunal Act. am a Section 10 of CPC does not appty a} when the previous suit is pending in the same court when the previous suit is pending in a foreign court c} when the previous suit is pending in any other court of India. d] when the previous suit is pending In a court outside India established by the Centre! Government Principle of Ftesjudlcata Is a] Mandatory bi Directory :1 Discretionarv at All the above international law is a week law because a} If is not enforceable as suchpositive morality bi There is absence of compulsory dispute settlement mechanisms and independent system of sanctions c} It only includes States as subjects d} There is no dependable sources avaiiabte Set-A- English 24. Which of the following territories have been 25. 26. 27. EB. declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Tan-nodes. Moon {21 High seas Deep sea bed Antarctica 2.Which of the following is not the obiective of the United Nations a] Maintenance of international peace and security b} Ensuring respect for treatv obligations ct Establishment of democratic governments throughout the wodd d) Promotion of better standards of life The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law Amendment Act. 2013 was headed by a} Justice Dalveer Bhandari ti} Justice Attamas Kati-oer c) Justice J.S. Verme- d) Justice .15. Anand What is true of perpetual injunction a} If is ajudicial process In] preventive in nature c} the thing prevented is a wrongful act d} allotthe above The provisions ot do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Union Act. 1926 at The {So-operative Societies Act. 1912 b} The Companies Act. 1956 c} Both a and d} Neither a nor 29. 30. 31. 32- 33. According to Salmond every legal right a] Cannot be vested in a person b} Is availed against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty at Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in iavour of the person entitled d} Cannot have atitte The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by a} Public opinion b} Abrogated decision c} Ftes judloate d] Lis pendene Which of the tollowing ls true in respect ot a Government contract which does not con?rm to provisions of Article 299 oi the Constitution at They are not enforceable in court against the parties b} They can be rectified by the Government c] Both AandB d} Neither A not State Bar Council under the provisions of section 35 of the Advocates Act. 1961 has the authorityr to a} Repnmand the advocate b} Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit c] Ftemove the name of the advocate from the slate roll of advocates d] All ofthese Which of the following is untme regarding quali?cation for a person to be admitted on the state rolts maintained by State Bar Councils of: The minimum age of requirement is 21 years. bl He mustbe an tndian Citizen 35. SE. He must not have been convicted of an offence invohn'ng moral turpitude d} They must not have lit-Ben convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability {Offences} Act 1958 .Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of a} Minority b] Insanity c} Idiocy d} None of the above If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchaHQe. it is a} a valid instrument b) an ambiguous instrument c} a returnable instrument d] none at the above . How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility. a} The will be calculated as per section 193 of Companies Act. 2013 b} It shall be calculated as per section 19? of the Companies Act. acts c} It shall be caiculated as per section 197 and section 381 ot the Companies Act. 2013 d] It shall be calculated as per section 193 and section 331 of Companies Act. 2U13 According to one of the theories of punishment evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the a} Fletol'mative Theory b} Deterrent Theory ct Preventive Theory d} Fietributive Theory Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under section 4 of the Gmnpanies Act. 2013 4 39- 4t]- 41. 42. Bill a} He can direct the Company to change it's name within a period of 5 months after passing an ordinary resoiution bi Take action for striking oh the name of the Company from the registrar of Companies c) Order winding up oi the Company on his own accord d} Alt of these Which of the following are included In the concept of ?State" under Article 12 a) Railway Board and Electricity Board b] Judiciary c] University d} All of the above The word procedure established by law in Article 21 means a} that due process of followed b} A procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority c] The same thing as due process oi law d] A law which is reasonable. lust and lair. law must be Objection as to non-jolnder or mis-joEnder or bodies under Order 1, Ftuie 13 ct CPC a] Can be taken at any stage of the proceedings bi should be tel-ten at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid c} can be taken in appeal or revision tor the ?rst time d] eithera orc Objection as to the place of suing a) can only be taken before the court of ?rst instance at the eaniest possible opportunity til} can also be taken before the appellate court tor the ?rst time cl can also be taken before the court or revision for the ?rst time 43. 45. 46. set A- English d] all oi the above On the retirement . removal or dead: oi a next friend. under Order. Ftule ti] of UFO. the suit is liable to be a} stayed b) dismissed cl rejected at either a, orc . in India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites? at b] MCIIPO oi C-DAO d} Ministry of IT The right to private defence is at available under all circumstances bi available when there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities c} available when there is no time to have recourse of public authorities d} Ail the above Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act. a} Termination due to b] Abandonment of job by an employee cl Termination on account of reaching the age of superannuation d} None oi these Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provisions ct section 14(3) of the Child Labour {prohibition and Regulation} Act. rose a) it tnay extend to one year. b] it may extend to two years. c] It may extend to six months. d] It may extend to one month 5 an set- 43. Dnus to prove reasonabie excuse for withdrawi from the Society of the other Is on at Petitioner b} Respondent c} Both a and d} Either a or 49. a proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance a) within '5 thumbs oi attachment b} within 2 years of attachment it} within 3 years of attachment d} within 1 year of attachment So. The question whether a statement was recorded in the oourse oi investigation is a a] question of law b} question of tact c} rooted question of law and test d} question of law or of fact depends on facts and circumstances 51. Where the police submits a final report under section 173{2} of Cr. PC for dropping ot proceedings to a magistrate. the Magistrate a} may accept the same b] they reject the same oi may reject the same and order further investigation d} anyr of the above 52. The orders under section 125 of Cr. PC are a) summary in nature but finally detenhlne the rights and obligations of the parties b} summary in nature and do not finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties which are to be finally determined by a civil court oi Substantive In nature and ?nally determine the rights and obligations of the ponies. 53. 54. 55. 56 d] Substantive in nature and are not subject to determination of a right at the parties by a civil court. A contingent contract based on the speci?ed uncertain events not happening within a ?xed time under section 35 a} remains vatid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time b] becomes void at the expiration of the time fitted c) becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time ?xed. d} both and Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act. 20m to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of sections is and 15 of the act? a} Central Govemmeni b} State Government c} Cartifying authority d} Issuing authority The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are it} When one owes a duty of care towards the other. When one commits a breach of that duty and The other person suitors damage as a consequence thereof Choose correct response for below a} None of them are essential ingredients b} Only the first is an essential ingredient c} All oi them are essential ingredients d] Even if the first is absent the tort of negiigenco is committed Vicarious liability includes a} Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent bi Liability of the master tor the tort of his servant c] Liability of the partners [or each others too di all of the above Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the matter at a statement a} is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence b] is a person who can be round but his attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses c] is a person who cannot be touno d} all at the above 53. Secondary evidence of a document means a] Copies of the document b) oral account of the contents of the documents c} both a and d} none of the above 59. A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness a} when it is registered b} when it is unregistered c} when it is admitted d) All oi the above so. Any person in section roe of Evidence Act refers to a} a party to the suit bi a stranger to the suit c} a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit d} all o! the above 61. In a oognizable case under IPC. police havetnc BE. '53. 66. a} Authority to arrest a person without warrant bi Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate c} Both a and d) Either or (bi During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by a} any police of?cer b} by the investigating of?ce-r c) both [a and b] d) either a or Dommittai proceedings under section EDS of Cr. PC are in the nature of a) aid in investigation to] inquiry c} trial d} either inquiry or trial . Which is correct a] proposal acceptanoe:promiso b} promise consideration=agreement c] agreement enforceability=contract d] ail oitha above Gommunication ot? acceptance is complete as against the proposer a} when it comes to the knowledge oi the proposer b} when it Is put in course or transmission power oi the acceptor c] when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer d) all of the above In cases of general otter, tor a valid contract a) the acceptor need not have the aneOge oi the otter b] the acceptor must have the knowledge of the otter before acceptance by performance 69. Hi. T1. to i?T?Eh oi the acceptor may acquire the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition for acceptance d} knowledge does not matter so long as the condition is perfect-led with or without knowiedge Under the provision of the Transfer of Property act. 1332, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit a} upon his birth bi 7? clove after his birth c} 12 days after his birth d} no such provision is made . Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or deiav the creditors of the transferor shall be voidabie a} at the option of creditor so defeated or delayed bi at the option of debtor c} at the option of court d} none of the above Where ctr-Judgment debtors are in the position of Joint promisors. each is a] not jointly and severally liable to the decree holder b} jointly and severally liable to the decree holder c] jointly liable to the decree holder only,r d) severally liable to the decree holder oni'ir At sight under section 21 of the Negotiable Act, 1331 means a] on presentation b} on demand c} on coming into vision d} none of the above Section 5 of the limitation act applies to a} Suite in} Execution T2. 3'4. c} Election petitions d?i None of the above Which of the following Companies will have to constitute Corporate Social responsibility Committee under the Companies Act, acre or} A Company having a net pro?t of 2-5 cores in a financial veer. a net worth of 30-0 crores and a turnover of rupees BOO crore b} A Company having a net profit of 13 cores. in a financial year, a net worth of Bot:- crores and a turnover of rupees Gl'?i'e c) A Company having a net profit of 5 cores or more, a net worth of 500 cranes and a turnover of rupees ?iCiDtIl crore or more d} A Companyr having a net pro?t of 5 cores or more. a net worth at 50:: crores and a turnover of rupees 500:] crore or more A disqualified personrhelr a} Transmits an interest to his or her own heir bi Transmits no interest to his or her own heir st May or may not transmit an interest to his or her ovirn heir as per the discretion of the court d] May only transmit an interest to his or her own hair with the consent of the other heirs. In cases in which a specific set confers a discretionarv power on an authority a} The court can direct the manner In which the power is exercised bl The court can direct that the power be exercised in accordance with law oi Beth A and d) NeitherAnorB 3? 7?5. 7?5. Tr'. BCI Set-A English slsE-Iit The Bar Council of India Rule which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates was struck down by the Supreme Court in a] in ES. Fleddi Bar Council of india b] Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advise Bar [louncii of India cl F. Shanniugam Ear ISouncil of India d} Legal Committee Elar iZ?rouncii of indie Which is an incorrect statement a} An Arbitrai award is a contract. b} An Arbitral award must be in writing and signed c] An Arbitral award included an interim award. d} None of the above Which of the following statements held true for adjudicated.r bodies a} Doctrine of stare Decisis applies to them bl Doctrine of Ftesjudicate does not apply to them c) Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the parties d} None of the above The Supreme court held in as. Ftangadurai D. Gopalan Ari advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that a} He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction b} He has lived a consistent life of poverty and integritv cl He possesses the good character necessarjir to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings d} The burden is on the applicant to establish that he entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions- 79. ED. 31. 32. 33. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on a} Constitution of India bl Supreme Court of India guidelines c} European Commercial Arbitration Procedure dl UNGITRAL Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus a} SEBI b} Central Government cl Law Board at National Company Law Tribunal Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle are given under the indian Forest Act. 192? a) Flame b] Kids cl Kitten dl None of these The provisions of the Arbitration and conciliation Act of 1995 have to be interpreted being uninftuenced bv the principles underlying the 19% Act. This observation was laid down in a) M.M.T.G. vs Sterlite Industries {indie} b} Sunderam Finance ltd. Ltd- c} Olympus Superstructures v. lvieere ?v'ljav d} Eta-ma Pvt. Ltd. Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Companv by an auditor appointed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 a} Internal Audit b} Actuarial services cl Managerial Services dl Allofthesc 8-4. 85. BE. 37" BB. Under the Wild Life [Protection] Act, any person who teases an animal in a me maybe punished a} with ?ne with may extend to EDDIE b} with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 year c] Eioth A and Neither a or The entry on forests and protection ot Wild animals and birds was moved the the 42?" Amendment to the Constitution of India at Centre list to State list in} Centre list to Concurrent list c} State list to Concurrent list d} State list to Union list Droit des Cans [Law of Nations} li'EEl was written by a] Cornelius van Bynkershoel-t e} Emerich de ?v'attel ct Flichard Zouch d} Jean Bodln To Establish section 34 a] Common Intention must he proved but not overt act rs required to he proved. b) Common intention and overt act both are required to be proved c} Common intention need not he proved but only oven act rs required to be proved. d] Ail of the above Under the provisions of the industrial Disputes Act. 194?. the appropriate government can by order in writing a} Flefer the dispute to a Board for promoting a settlement of the dispute h) Flelar any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to a court for inquiry cl both a and 39- Eli}. 91 92. d] neither :1 nor Which ot the following statement is true for loss of con?dence by management in the workman? at Even when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful. the court may not yet order reinstatement it the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position ol trust and there was less of con?dence. la] Loss of confidence may also he a ground for discharge simpliciter of the workman c] Both a and d] Neither 3 nor Under the provisions ot the Consumer Protection Act. rose. the period of limitation tor complaint before the National Commission is at 1 year trom the date on which cause of action has arisen hi 2 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen c} 3 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen d} 4 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen Grievous hurt under the Motor vehicles Act. 1983 means a} Grievous hurt as dellned in b} Grievous hurt as de?ned in medical laws cl Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitioner d} none of the above A retracted confession a} can be solely made the basis of centrictlon b} cannot be solely made the basis of conviction BCI Set-Ft? English cl cannot be solely made the basis at conviction unless the same is corrob-drated d] both a and are correct 93. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of the act at must relate to the same crime for which ottender is charged bi may relate to the same crime tor which offender is charged c} must relate to another crime di none at the above 94. An unjusti?ed and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness a} Unreliable b} Inadmissible' c} Inadmissible and unreliable d} None of the above 95. Recording of pre?surnmoning evidence may be dispensed with under section 200 oi Gr. PC. a] If the complaint is supported by the atfidavit oi the complainant b} It the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties c] both a and are correct d} only a is correct but to is incorrect 96. Contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection is a} void b) reasonable c] valid d} unenforceable Under the Transfer of Property Act. 1332 93. at the salary of a public orlrcer can be transferred b} the salary of a public officer cannot be transferred c} public office can be transferred of} none of the above Where a debt is transferred for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt, the debt so transterred. if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee is applicable ?rst. in payment of cost of such recovery. This is the provision of a} mortgaged debt b) gift c] actionable claim lease . A suit under section of the Specific Fietief Act can be brought by at trespasser bi a tenant holding over c] servant d} manager 100. injunction cannot be granted in a suit at in which the specific performance cannot enforced bi for breach of negative contract to enforce specific contract cl for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession d} neither a, nor b. nor